Help needed: Aristotle to Machiavelli

Years ago, I read something about Machiavelli’s intentional misquotation of Marsilius of Padua’s intentional misquotation of William of Moerbeke’s unintentional mistranslation of a comment by Aristotle.

I haven’t been able to track down the original source for this claim, and I may well have misread or misremembered it.

Can anyone help me out?

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